What is the longest muscle of the body?
Sartorius
Function of the biceps femoris is to
extend the thigh and flex the leg
With 3 seconds left on the clock, Mia breaks free and scores the winning goal in her soccer game. What muscles have primary action in extending the leg for kicking?
quadriceps femoris
Crural muscles are those that move the
ankle, foot, and toes
What muscle is the primary dorsiflexor of the foot at the ankle?
tibialis anterior
The extensor hallucis longus is located in the
anterior compartment of the leg
Muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg function to
dorsiflex the foot and extend the toes
If you were to remove the gastrocnemius muscle you would expose the
soleus
These 2 muscles are known as the triceps surae and together are the most powerful plantar flexors of all the leg muscles
gastrochemius and soleus
What is not innervated by the deep fibular nerve?
gastrochemius
The flexor digitorum longus is located in the
deep layer of the posterior compartment of the leg and it flexes toes 2-5
What two muscles insert on the calcaneal tendon?
gastrochemius and soleus
What muscle “unlocks” the fully extended knee joint?
popliteus
The ___ muscles of the foot both originate and insert within the foot
intrinsic
The intrinsic foot muscles form a __ group and a __ group
dorsal
Plantar
This thick sheet of fascia extends between the phalanges of the toes and calcaneus, and also encloses the plantar muscles of the foot
Plantar aponeurosis
What muscle or group is responsible for adduction of the toes?
plantar interossei
What muscle is not innervated by the plantar nerve
extensor digitorum brevis
The muscle or group not originating from the calcaneus is the
lumbricals
the pronator teres and pronator quadrates cause pronation of the forearm. What muscle opposes this movement
supinator
what gluteal muscles is correctly matched with its primary action
Gluteus medius: abducts the thigh
receptors are parts of the nervous system that allow it to
collect info
the nervous system controls the activity of muscles and glands. muscles and glands can generate changes and are therefore called
effectors
nerves and ganglia are structures found in the
peripheral nervous system
what is not a function of the nervous system
transporting materials throughout the body
the afferent division of the nervous system is also known as the __ division
sensory
what is not a function of the motor division of the nervous system
transmits impulses from the viscera
portion of the nervous system that conducts impulses from the skin, joints, skeletal muscles, and special senses is the __ division
somatic sensory
portion of the nervous system that has voluntary control over skeletal muscles is the __ division
somatic motor
a neuron conducting an impulse from the CNS to the detrusor muscle of the urinary bladder would be classified as a(n) ___ neuron
autonomic motor
a neuron conducting an impulse from the stomach wall to the CNS would be classified as a(n) neuron
visceral sensory
what is not a characteristic of neurons
high mitotic rate
conductive activity in a neuron generally causes it to secrete
a specific neurotransmitter that either excited or inhibits its target
what is consistent with the current understanding of neural tissue
most neurons formed in fetal development last a lifetime, but some brain regions in adults can generate new neurons
what part of the neuron contains the nucleus
soma
where are synaptic knobs located
tips of telodendria
the cytoplasm within a cell body of a neuron is called the
perikaryon
what structures extend into the axon and dendrite of a neuron to provide tensile strength
neurofibrils
fast axonal transport is
active and can occur in either the anterograde or retrograde direction
vesicles and glycoproteins required at the synapse are moves down a nerve fiber by __ axonal transport
fast
based on the structure, the most common type of neuron is the __ neuron
multipolar
based on the function, 99% of neurons are
interneurons
the neurons that are responsible for integrating info by retrieving, processing, storing, and “deciding” how to body responds to stimuli are
interneurons
what functional class of neurons lies entirely within the central nervous system
interneurons
a bipolar neuron has
one axon and one dendrite extending from the cell body
a mixed nerve refers to one that contains both
sensory and motor neurons
in a mixed nerve
some axons transmit sensory info and others transmit motor info
most commonly, a synapse is made between a
presynaptic neurons axon and a postsynaptic neurons dendrite
when transmission occurs at a synapse, neurotransmitter is released by
presynaptic neurons synaptic knob into the synaptic cleft
electrical synapses involve coupling of neurons by
gap junctions
what compares the transmission speed of the different types of synapses
transmission at chemical synapses involves a brief synaptic delay, but electrical synapses are faster
glial cells differ from neurons in that they
are smaller and capable of mitosis
what is the most abundant glial cell in the CNS
astrocyte
the glial cell that helps to circulate cerebrospinal fluid is the
ependymal cell
the glial cell that myelinated and insulates axons within the CNS is the
oligodendrocyte
the glial cell that helps to form the blood brain barrier is the
astrocyte
glial cell that myelinated and insulates axons in the peripheral nervous system is the
neurolemmocyte
glial cell that defends the body against pathogens is the
microglial cell
glial cell that protects neuron cell bodies located with ganglia is the
satellite cell
glial cell with the responsibility of occupying the space left by dead or dying neurons is the
astrocyte
glial cell that provides structural support and organization to the CNS is the
astrocyte
glial cell with perivascular feet that wrap around capillaries in the CNS is the
astrocyte
what do all glial cells have in common
assist neurons in their respective functions
the glossy white appearance of most axons is due to
high lipid content of the myeline sheath
what is true regarding the action of a neurolemmocyte
each neurolemmocyte can wrap only a 1mm portion of a single axon
what is true regarding the action of an oligodendrocyte
each oligodendrocyte can form a myelin sheath around many axons simultaneously
function of a myelin is to
produce faster nerve impulse propagation
continuous conduction of a nerve impulse occurs only along
unmyelinated axons
with damage to nerve fibers, larger distances between the site of damage and the target structure innervated result in __ chances of successful regeneration
decreased
what division of the nervous system shows a greater capacity for regeneration
PNS
following damage to the axons nearby, oligodendrocytes
secrete growth inhibitory molecules
Wallerian degeneration involves the breakdown of
segments of axon and myelin sheath between the site of damage and the peripheral effector
a nerve
is a cable like bundle of parallel axons
correctly order the connective tissue wrappings of a nerve, beginning at the outermost layer
epineurium
perineurium
endoneurium
the endoneurium is composed of
areolar connective tissue
the epineurium is composed of
dense irregular connective tissue
connective tissue wrapping that surrounds bundles of axons is the
perineurium
type of transport protein that moves a substance down its concentration gradient is a
channel
chemically gated ion channels are mainly found in the __ segment of a neuron
receptive
type of voltage gated channel that possesses an inactivation gate that temporarily closes after the channel is active is the
voltage gated sodium channel
potassium has a higher concentration:
inside the cell vs. outside the cell, whereas sodium has a higher concentration outside vs. inside the cell
the electrochemical gradient refers to
combo of electrical and chemical gradients between two areas
separation of oppositely charged ionic particles across a resting neurons membrane results in a potential that is measured as a
voltage
typically, the resting membrane potential of a neuron is
-70 mV
to measure the resting potential of a neuron, a physiologist would place
one micro electrode inside the neuron and another in the interstitial fluid
most crucial factor determining the resting potential of a neuron is the diffusion of
potassium out of the cell through leak channels
if there were no sodium leak channels, the resting membrane potential of a neuron would be
more negative
maintenance of appropriate ion concentrations if primarily the job of
sodium potassium pumps
a depolarization is when the inside of a neuron becomes __ the resting membrane potential
less negative than
hyper polarization of a neuron results from
either the entry of an anion or the exit of a cation
a graded potential is one that
varies in size depending of the magnitude of the stimulus
action potentials are generated by the opening of __ gated channels and they occur on the __
voltage
axon
when a neurotransmitter opens a chemically gated ion channel that allows sodium to enter the postsynaptic cell, result is an
EPSP
when a neurotransmitter causes the opening of chemically gated potassium channels on the postsynaptic cell, the postsynaptic potential that results is an
IPSP, which is an hyperpolarization
a graph of an EPSP would plot time against a voltage trace that would resemble
a hill where the high point approaches the threshold value
in neurophysiology, the term summation refers to the addition of
postsynaptic potentials at the initial segment
when multiple presynaptic neurons release neurotransmitter at various locations onto the postsynaptic neuron at the same time it results in
spatial summation
conductive segment of a neuron is its __, a region that contains many __ gated channels
axon
voltage
when voltage gated k+ channels open on the conductive segment of a neuron
potassium exists, repolarizing the cell to a negative value
hyper polarization that occurs at the end of an action potential is due to the prolonged
open state of voltage gated potassium channels
__ refractory period occurs first
absolute
as a neurons refractory period ends, its sodium channels are changing from
their inactivated state to their resting state
when a nerve impulse reaches the transmissive segment of a neuron
calcium diffuses into the neuron and neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis
arrival of an action potential at the synaptic knob results in
opening of voltage gated calcium channels and diffusion of calcium into the synaptic knob
a nerve impulse travels fastest along __ axons of __ diameter
myelinated
large
in a myelinated axon, the greatest concentration of voltage gated ion channels is in the
neurofibril nodes
saltatory conduction occurs in
myelinated axons, where action potentials occur only at neurofibril nodes
slowest category of nerve fibers are the
c fibers, they conduct impulses at 1 meter per second
somatic motor neuron axons fall into the category of
A fibers
catecholamines are a subtype of __ neurotransmitters
monoamine
monoamine that has functions related to sleep, appetite, cognition, and mood is
serotonin
primary inhibitory neurotransmitter is the brain is
GABA
one of the ways that neurotransmitter is removed from the synaptic cleft is
reuptake by the presynaptic cell
main way acetylocholine is cleared from a synapse is by
degradation by an enzyme
when a neuromodulator slows the reuptake of a neurotransmitter or causes expression of an increased number of receptors on postsynaptic neurons, effect is called
facilitation
as an axon approaches the cell onto which it will terminate, it generally branches repeatedly into several
telodendria
correctly list in chronological order, events involved in synaptic transmission
1) nerve impulse reaches the synaptic knob
2) neurotransmitter molecules diffuse across the synaptic cleft
3) neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors in the postsynaptic cell
4) voltage change occurs in the postsynaptic cell
5) nerve impulse begins in the postsynaptic cell
name 2 types of synapses, based of mode of communicaton
chemical
electrical
of the two synapses based on communication, which is less common but allows faster signal transmission
electrical
billions of CNS interneurons are grouped in complex patterns called neuronal
pools
what is not a type of neuronal pool
triangular pre discharge
type of neuronal circuit in which several nerve impulses come together at a single postsynaptic neuron is a __ circuit
converging
type of neuronal circuit that uses feedback to produce a repeated, cyclinal stimulation of the circuit is a __ circuit
reverberating
type of neuronal circuit in which several neurons process the same info at one time is a __ circuit
parallel after discharge
type of neuronal circuit that spreads info from one presynaptic neuron to several postsynaptic neurons is a __ circuit
diverging
what type of circuit would you use to solve a higher order mathematical problem
parallel after discharge
what circuit is used to maintain body posture while walking
diverging
you walk into a restaurant and amidst the sights, sounds, and smells of food preparation, you notice that you have begun to salivate. this is evidence that a particular circuit has been activated. which one
converging
type of neuronal circuit that ensures that we continue to breathe while asleep is a __ circuit
reverberating
the __ is a large, saw toothed, flat, fan shaped muscle positioned between the ribs and the scapula
serratus anterior
neural stem cells in the CNS
can form new neurons in only certain portions of the CNS such as the hippocampus
what is not a hamstring muscle
rectus femoris
what muscle does not originate on the ischial tuberosity
adductor longus
what musle inserts on the head of the fibula
biceps femoris
contraction of the diaphragm assists in
inspiration
the deepest of the abdominal muscles are the __ muscles
transversus abdominis
what muscle forms the traditional “six pack” of a well toned abdominal wall
rectus abdominis
what are tendinous intersections
fibrous, perpendicular insertions between successive sheets or blocks of muscle
what abdominal muscles is innervated by spinal nerves t7-t12
rectus abdominis
what abdominal muscles has its fibers running in an inferomedial direction
external oblique
for defecation to take place, the puborectalis must
relax
what is the diamond shaped region between the lower appendages called
perineum
the superficial layer of the urogenital triangle contains 3 muscles. what are they
bulbospongisus
ischiocavernosus
superficial transverse perineal
what muscle is not innervated by the pudendal nerve
coccygeus
in the male, what muscle ejects urine or semen, compresses the base of the penis, and helps in formation of an erection
bulbospongiosus
what muscle is part of the urogenital diaphragm and constricts the urethra to voluntarily inhibit urination
external urethral sphincter
the anterior border of the perineum is the
pubic symphysis
what muscles arise from the skull and often attach to the skin
muscles of facial expression
what muscles help us in the initial breakdown of food
muscles of mastication
muscles that protract the scapula would be __ thoracic muscles
anterior
muscles of the pectoral girdle originate on the
axial skeleton and insert on the clavicle and scapula
name the 3 anterior thoracic muscles
pectoralis minor
serratus anterior
subclavius
what muscles elevates and retracts the scapula
rhomboid major
when contracted, this muscle causes expansion of the thoracic cavity and increases pressure in the abdominopelvic cavity. its insertion is on a central tendon
diaphragm
of the muscles that move the glenohumeral joint, two originate on the axial skeleton. what are they
latissimus dorsi
pectoralis major
what muscle does not adduct the arm
supraspinatus
what muscles have their origin on the scapula
pectoralis major
what glenohumeral joint does not insert on the humerus
triceps brachii
principles elbow flexors located on the anterior side of the humerus are the
biceps brachii
brachialis
brachioradialis
as a baseball pitcher winds up to throw, he medially rotated his arm by contracting his
subscapularis
what is not a rotator cuff muscle
teres major
what muscle is known os the swimmers muscle
latissimus dorsi
what muscle is not innervated by the radial nerve
pronator teres
besides the supinator, which other muscle is a powerful supinator of the forearm
biceps brachii
many of the muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm work to __ the wrist, and they have their origin on the __ epicondyle on the humerus
flex
medial
within which layer of the anterior compartment of the forearm is the flexor pollicis longus located
deep layer
what is a retinaculum
a thickened fibrous band of fascia
the condition known as tennis elbow is caused by trauma or overuse of the
common extensor tendon of the posterior forearm muscles
the extensor digitorum muscle is found in the
superficial layer of the posterior compartment of the forearm
what groups of muscles forms a thick, fleshy mass at the base of the thumb
thenar group
if you had all of your fingers spread out wide, which muscle of group would bring your thumb toward your first finger
adductor pollicis
if you had all your fingers spread out wide, which muscle or group would bring fingers 2-5 together
palmar interossei
when a child raises her hand to show you she is 5 years old, she is using all of the following muscles except the
flexor digitorum
most muscles that move the thigh originate on the
os coxae
what is one of the largest muscles in the body and the one most responsible for extending and laterally rotating the thigh
gluteus maximus
you hear a sharp noise to your left causing you to shift your eyes in that direction. what muscles were responsible for your glance
left eye- lateral rectus
right eye- medial rectus
what extrinsic eye muscle moves through a pulley like loop
superior oblique
what extrinsic eye muscle is innervated by the abducens nerve
lateral rectus
what cranial nerve innervates the superior oblique muscle
trochlear nerve
list the four muscle of mastication
masseter
temporalis
lateral pterygoid
medial pterygoid
what muscle does not move the mandible
genioglossus
the ending “glossus” on the name of a muscle refers to
tongue
what muscle is used for sticking out the tongue
genioglossus
what bone inserts on the hyoid bone
genioglossus
pharyngeal constrictor muscles are especially important for which function
swallowing
you have disembarked from an airplane following a cross country flight. you are experiencing difficulty in hearing and notice that your ears are plugged. to relieve the pressure you try “yawning” to clear the ear canal. it worked. what muscle was involved
tensor veli palatini
muscles whose functions are to either depress the hyoid bone or the thyroid cartilage of the larynx are the __ muscles
infrahyoid
this muscle has its origin on the manubrium and sternal end of the clavicle and its insertion on the mastoid process
sternocleidomastoid
if the right sternocleidomastoid contracts unilaterally, the resulting movement will be
lateral flexion of the head to the right and rotation of the head to the left
when the left and right splenius capitis contract together, the resulting movement is
extension of the neck
the most laterally placed of the three erector spine components, the __ group, is composed of 3 parts.. cervical, thoracic, and lumbar
iliocostalis
this muscle extends and rotates the vertebral column toward the opposite side of the body. its origin is on the sacrum and transverse processes of each vertebrae and its insertion is the spinous processes of more superior vertebrae
multifidus
an end plate potential is an event that involves a gain of
postitive charge for the cell, as sodium rapidly enters
the calcium ions involved in skeletal muscle contraction bind to an __ subunit
troponin
what is the neurotransmitter that causes the release of calcium ions from reservoirs within the muscle cell and thereby initiates the steps of contraction
acteylcholine
actylcholine exerts its effect by
binding to receptors at the motor end plate
the way actylcholine is released from a neuron is
through exocytosis when a vesicle fuses with the membrane
when an impulse arrives at the knob of the motor neuron, calcium
enters through voltage gated channels and triggers the release of transmitter
what structures are reservoirs that store actylcholine
synaptic vesicles
the narrow space that separates the motor neuron and the skeletal muscle fiber in a neuromuscular junction is called the
synaptic cleft
fibers from one motor unit
are dispersed throughout most of the muscle
a motor unit within the powerful quadriceps muscle would
generally contain several hundred fibers
a motor unit consists of
a single motor neuron and the multiple muscle fibers it controls
one feature that helps provide fast energy to a muscle cell is the presence of granules containing the complex carbohydrate
glycogen
the presence of mitochondria and myoglobin facilitate __ respiration in muscle cells
aerobic
a typical skeletal muscle cell contains approximately __ mitochondria
300
myoglobin is a molecule witin muscle cells that can bind
oxygen
a sarcomere is defined as the distance from one __ to the next adjacent __
2 disc
which of the myofilaments of a muscle fiber has the active sites to which the heads of the thick filaments will bind
actin
a skeletal muscle cell contains hundreds to thousands of __, which are complex organelles
myofibrils
each thick filament contains about __ protein molecules
200
what is not a protein found in thin filaments
sarcomyosin
what protein makes up the thick filaments
myosin
what are the reservoirs that store the calcium required for muscle contraction
terminal cisternae
the action potential of a muscle fiber occurs
along the sarcolemma and down the t tubules
the repolarization of the action potential involves the opening of
voltage gated k+ channels
what sequence correctly lists the changes that allow the thick and thin filaments to slide past one another in skeletal muscle contraction
attach
pivot
detach
return
during which phase of the cross bridge cycle is ATP split into ADP and Pi
immediately preceding the resetting of the myosin head
a power stroke involves
a myosin head pulling a think filament toward the center of the sarcomere
a drug that inhibited actycholinesterase would result in
enhanced stimulation of the muscle due to decreased ACh breakdown
for relaxation to occur
ACh receptors close and Ca++ channels on the sarcoplasmic reticulum close
for relaxation to occur
sarcoplasm calcium levels fall, calcium is removed from troponin, and tropomyosin blocks binding sites on action
when a muscle relaxes
cross bridges stop forming and muscle elasticity return the muscle to rest length
the phosphagen system is used for
immediate ATP needs and is not depended on oxygen
glycolysis is an
anaerobic process that occurs in the cytosol
the net energy yield form one glucose molecules through the process of glycolysis is
2 ATP
for a sprint lasting 60 seconds, ATP is supplied initially by
phosphagen system but primarily by glycolysis
oxidative fibers are
red and fatigue-resistant
the type of fibers specialized to continue contracting for extended periods of time, as would be required in running a marathon, for example, are __ fibers
slow
vascular supply to slow muscle fibers is __ the network of capillaries around fast muscle fibers
more extensive than
intermediate fibers is another name for
fast, oxidative fibers
what fibers dominate many of the back and calf muscles that contract almost continually to maintain posture
slow
muscles of the eye and hand have a high percentage of __ fibers
fast
events of excitation contraction coupling, such as the release of calcium from intracellular stores, occur during the __ period of a muscle twitch
latent
release of cross bridges and a decline in muscle tension characterize the __ period of a twitch
relaxation
the increase in muscle tension that occurs with an increase in the intensity of a stimulus is called
recruitment
consider the difference between lifting a light pad of paper vs a heavy textbook. the primary way the level of force of muscle contraction is controlled is by
recruiting a different number of motor units
“staircase” and warm up are alternative names for __, an increased muscle response to a constant stimulus
treppe
in a lab, wave summation is demonstrated by increasing the _ of the stimulus
frequency
muscle tone is a result of _ nervous system activity, and it acts to _ joint positon
involuntary
stabilize
invaginations of the muscle cell membrane that extend deep into the cell are known as the
t tubules
the membranous network that wraps around myofibrils and holds relatively high concentrations of calcium is known as the
sarcoplasmic reticulum
the multiple nuclei in skeletal muscle cells are the result of the
fusion of myoblasts
the neurons that stimulate muscle contraction are called __ neurons
motor
a flat, thin structure made of dense connective tissue that serves to attach a muscle to a bone is an
aponeurosis
structure responsible for attaching muscle to bone is a
tendon
what is the correct order of the connective tissue layers of a skeletal muscle, beginning with the outermost first
epimysium
perimysium
endomysium
what is a correct listing of the hierarchy of skeletal muscles components beginning with the smallest
myofibrils
muscle fiber
fascicle
skeletal muscle
in general, a skeletal muscle is composed of
connective tissue sheaths
nerves
arteries
veins
muscle fibers
spring like property that returns muscle to its original length after a contraction ends is
elasticity
a skeletal muscle cell can be several inches long. the property of muscle tissue that allows an impulse to travel down the entire length of the cell membrane is
conductivity
what are possible functions of skeletal muscles
maintenance of posture
both highly coordinated and localized simple movements
temperature regulation
support of certain body organs
regulation of the movement of material through certain body tracts
characteristic of muscle that allows it to be passively stretched is
extensibility
what contraction occurs when you try to move wall
isometric
when a muscle is isometrically contracted, its length __ change
does not
the top long distance runners probably have _ proportion of slow muscle fibers in their leg muscles
a higher
most prevalent of skeletal muscle fibers in the body are __ fibers
fast
one of the reasons you might struggle to lift a heavy object if you tried to lift it with your arm at a fully extended position is that
full extension results in decreased overlap between thick and think filaments in the muscle
increased phosphate ion concentration is believed to contribute to fatigue by interfering with
phosphate release by myosin heads during cross bridge cycling
what may occur as a result of muscle atrophy
reduction is muscle size
fibers become weaker
muscle loses tone
fibers waste away and die
with increased age, skeletal muscles show
decrease in number of myofibrils
the main way a body builders muscles become larger is
by an increase in the size of muscle cells
a term that describes the change in muscle following a lack of exercise is
atrophy
type of muscle fibers that have only a single nucleus, both thick and thin filaments, but no 2 discs, are
smooth
growth of the uterus during pregnancy is accomplished by _ of its smooth muscle
both hypertrophy and hyperplasia
the latch bridge mechanism of myosin heads is a property of __ muscle
smooth
to initiate a smooth muscle cell contraction, calcium enters the cell and binds to
calmodulin, then binds to and activates myosin light chain kinase
branch of the nervous system that helps govern smooth muscle contraction is the _ nervous system
autonomic
when smooth muscle is stretched for a prolonged period of time, it responds by
relaxing
smooth muscle tissue in which cells are individually sent signals to contract is referred to as
multiunit
most abundant form of smooth muscle is
single unit, also known as visceral smooth muscle
rather than tightly coupled synapses between neurons and muscle cells, single unit smooth muscle contains
diffuse junctions where neuron varicosities are responsible for neurotransmitters release
type of muscle fibers that are striated, form Y shaped branches, and have junctions called intercalated discs are
cardiac
in the limbs, what tends to be a muscles more distal attachement
insertion
a muscle whose action opposes that of the prime mover is known as
antagonist
for elbow flexion
biceps brachii is the agonist and triceps brachia is the antagonist
the word “biceps” in the name of a muscle refers to the fact that
muscle has two tendons of origin
the rhomboid muscle is named for its
shape
when a person blinks she is using her
orbiculans oculi
you just ran over a skunk on your way to class. the odor was overwhelming and in response you wrinkled your nose in disgust by contracting your
procerus muscle
what is the kiss muscle used for puckering the lips
orbicularis oris
a nursing baby is using what muscle to suckle
buccinator
the mentalis muscle has what action
pouting
the frontal belly of the occipitofrontalis muscle causes what action
wrinkling the brow
x

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