Chapter 8 skeletal

1) The average number of bones in the adult skeleton is
a) 56.
b) 106.
c) 156.
d) 206.
e) 256.
d) 206.
2) All the bones listed below belong to the axial skeleton, except.
a) Frontal bone.
b) Mandible.
c) Scapula.
d) Thoracic vertebra.
e) Stapes
c) Scapula.
3) A rounded knob that articulates with another bone is called a
a) Condyle.
b) Sulcus.
c) Alveolus.
d) Foramen.
e) Sinus.
a) Condyle.
4) Any bony prominence is called
a) An epicondyle.
b) A tubercle.
c) A fossa.
d) A head.
e) A process
e) A process
5) Why does an adult not have as many bones as a child?
a) Because osteoporosis leads to bone loss with age.
b) Because some separate bones gradually fuse with age.
c) Because many bones are replaced by cartilage with age.
d) Because bones are reabsorbed with age.
e) Because Osteoclast activity overcomes Osteoclast activity with age.
b) Because some separate bones gradually fuse with age.
6) What is a sesamoid bone?
a) A bone growing within some cartilages in response to pressure.
b) A bone that forms within some tendons in response to stress.
c) A bone that forms in the cranium in response to trauma.
d) A bone made of hyaline cartilage.
e) A bone made of dense regular connective tissue.
b) A bone that forms within some tendons in response to stress
7) A hole through a bone that usually allows passage for nerves and blood vessels is called a (n).
a) Canal.
b) Alveolus.
c) Fissure.
d) Foramen.
e) Sinus.
d) Foramen.
8) All the bones listed below belong to the appendicular skeleton except
a) clavicle.
b) patella.
c) ethmoid.
d) Ulna.
e) Carpals.
c) ethmoid.
9) Most of the bones of the skull are connected by immovable joints called
a) Sinuses.
b) Canals.
c) Lines.
d) Fissures.
e) Sutures
e) Sutures
10) Sinuses are not found in the
a) Sphenoid bone.
b) Frontal bone.
c) Temporal bone.
d) Maxilla.
e) parietal bone
c) Temporal bone.
11) _________ is not found as a part of the temporal bone.
a) The zygomatic process.
b) The mastoid process.
c) The external acoustic meatus.
d) The sella turcica.
e) The mandibular fossa.
d) The sella turcica.
12) ________ are not facial bones.
a) Parietal bones.
b) Maxillae.
c) Lacrimal bones.
d) Nasal bones.
e) Palatine bones.
a) Parietal bones.
13) The _____ houses the pituitary gland (hypophysis) and is found in the ________.
a) Foramen magnum; occipital bone.
b) Sella turcica; sphenoid bone.
c) Lambdoid suture; parietal bones.
d) Supraorbital margin; frontal bone.
e) occipital condyle; occipital bone.
b) Sella turcica; sphenoid bone.
14) There are two of each of the following bones except
a) Ethmoid bone(s).
b) Parietal bone.
c) Maxilla (e).
d) Zygomatic bone.
e) Palatine bone(s).
a) Ethmoid bone(s).
15) The ______________ suture separates the temporal bone from the parietal bone.
a) Coronal.
b) Squamous.
c) Lambdoid.
d) Sagittal.
e) Frontal.
b) Squamous.
16) These are bones associated with the skull but not considered part of it except
a) The incus.
b) The malleus.
c) The hyoid.
d) The stapes.
e) The vomer
e) The vomer
17) Fontanels are ____________ in an infant.
a) Spaces between the unfused cranial bones.
b) Cartilages covering cranial bones.
c) Fibrous connective tissues lining the cranial cavity.
d) Fibrous connective tissues lining the orbits.
e) Fibrous connective tissues lining paranasal sinuses.
a) Spaces between the unfused cranial bones.
18) The most common deformity is an abnormal lateral curvature called
a) Scoliosis.
b) Lordosis.
c) Kyphosis.
d) Osteosis.
e) Slipped disc
a) Scoliosis.
19) Which intervertebral disc is largest?
a) The one between C2 and C3.
b) The one between C7 and T1.
c) The one between T4 and T5.
d) The one between T12 and L1.
e) The one between L4 and L5.
e) The one between L4 and L5.
20) _______ does not belong to a representative vertebra.
a) The spinous process.
b) The transverse processes.
c) The vertebral head.
d) The vertebral foramen.
e) The vertebral body
c) The vertebral head.
21) The axis is the only vertebra with a
a) Transverse foramen.
b) Spinous process.
c) Dens (odontoid process).
d) Vertebral arch.
e) Superior articular facet.
c) Dens (odontoid process).
22) These are all features found in a typical thoracic vertebra except
a) The body has facets as points of articulation for ribs.
b) It usually has a facet at the end of each transverse process for attachment of a rib.
c) The body is more massive than those of cervical vertebrae but less than those of lumbar vertebrae.
d) The spinous process is pointed and angled sharply downward.
e) It has a pair of transverse foramina.
e) It has a pair of transverse foramina.
23) The ____ belongs to the thoracic cage, whereas the ___ belongs to the pectoral girdle.
a) Sternum; clavicle.
b) Clavicle; sternum.
c) T5; T1.
d) Scapula; clavicle.
e) Scapula; sternum.
a) Sternum; clavicle.
24) The manubrium belongs to
a) The clavicle.
b) The sternum.
c) The scapula.
d) A rib.
e) a vertebra
b) The sternum.
25) Rib 7 is a
a) True rib.
b) Floating rib.
c) false rib.
d) pelvic rib.
e) cartilaginous rib.
a) True rib.
26) The ___ can be easily palpated between the clavicles.
a) Xiphoid process.
b) Suprasternal notch.
c) Body of the sternum.
d) Costal cartilage.
e) Costal groove
b) Suprasternal notch.
27) The spinous process has a bifid tip in most _______________ vertebrae.
a) cervical.
b) thoracic.
c) lumbar.
d) sacral.
e) coccygeal
a) cervical.
28) In a herniated disc, the ring of fibrocartilage called the ___________ cracks and the _____________ oozes out.
a) nucleus pulposus; anulus fibrosus.
b) lámina; nucleus pulposus.
c) anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus.
d) anulus fibrosus; body.
e) nucleus pulposus; lámina
c) anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus.
29) Costal cartilages connect.
a) The clavicles with the sternum.
b) True ribs with the scapula.
c) Floating ribs with xiphoid process.
d) False ribs with the viscera and peritoneum.
e) Ribs with the sternum.
e) Ribs with the sternum.
30) __________ Do (does) not belong to the pectoral girdle.
a) The glenohumeral joint.
b) The acromioclavicular joint.
c) The sternoclavicular joint.
d) The sacroiliac joint.
e) The clavicle and scapula.
d) The sacroiliac joint.
31) The acromion is a feature of the
a) Clavicle.
b) Scapula.
c) Ulna.
d) Scaphoid.
e) Pollex
b) Scapula.
32) The brachium contains the ______, whereas the antebrachium contains the _______.
a) Humerus; radius and ulna.
b) Radius and ulna; humerus.
c) Carpals and metacarpals; radius and ulna.
d) Radius and ulna; carpals and metacarpals.
e) Humerus, radius, and ulna; carpals and metacarpals.
a) Humerus; radius and ulna.
33) The glenoid cavity of the ____________ articulates with the head of the _________.
a) Scapula; sternum.
b) Radius; humerus.
c) Humerus; scapula.
d) Sternum; humerus.
e) Scapula; humerus.
e) Scapula; humerus
34) The right hand and wrist of an adult has _____________ bones.
a) 15.
b) 18.
c) 25.
d) 27.
e) 28
d) 27.
35) Spines of the _____ form a part of the pelvic outlet.
a) Sacrum.
b) Pubis.
c) Ischium.
d) Ilium.
e) Pubic symphysis
c) Ischium.
36) The acetabulum articulates with the
a) humerus.
b) femur.
c) patella.
d) tibia.
e) Hip bone
b) femur.
37) A newborn passes through the __________________ during birth.
a) Obturator foramen.
b) Pelvic inlet.
c) Pelvic outlet.
d) Acetabulum.
e) Auricular surface.
c) Pelvic outlet.
38) Male and female pelves differ in the following features except
a) The male pelvis is more massive.
b) The male pelvic outlet is smaller.
c) The female pubic arch is usually greater than 100°.
d) The female coccyx is tilted posteriorly.
e) The female sacrum is longer.
e) The female sacrum is longer.
39) The ______________ does not belong to the femur.
a) Anterior crest.
b) Fovea capitis.
c) Medial condyle.
d) Greater trochanter.
e) Lesser trochanter
a) Anterior crest.
40) You cannot palpate the ________________ on a living person.
a) Lateral malleolus.
b) Tibial tuberosity.
c) Medial surface of the fibula.
d) Anterior crest of the tibia.
e) Calcaneus.
c) Medial surface of the fibula
41) Each of the following bones contributes to forming the orbit, except the _____ bone.
a) Frontal.
b) Lacrimal.
c) Nasal.
d) Ethmoid.
e) Sphenoid.
c) Nasal.
42) Which of the following is not a part of the axial division of the skeletal system?
a) Auditory ossicles.
b) Vertebral column.
c) Skull.
d) Pectoral girdle.
e) Hyoid bone.
d) Pectoral girdle.
43) The zygomatic arch is formed by the union of processes from which two bones?
a) Zygomatic and maxilla.
b) Frontal and temporal.
c) Temporal and zygomatic.
d) Temporal and maxilla.
e) Sphenoid and temporal
c) Temporal and zygomatic.
44) The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by the
a) Nasal bones.
b) Vomer and sphenoid bone.
c) Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and vomer bones.
d) Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone.
e) Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and sphenoid bones.
c) Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and vomer bones.
45) The structure that separates the condylar and coronoid processes of the mandible is
a) The angle.
b) The ramus.
c) The mandibular notch.
d) The styloid process.
e) The mandibular canal.
c) The mandibular notch.
46) The lower jaw articulates with the temporal bone at the
a) Mastoid process.
b) Mandibular fossa.
c) Foramen rotundum.
d) Superior clinoid process.
e) Cribriform plate.
b) Mandibular fossa.
47) Each of the following structures is associated with the sphenoid bone except the
a) Optic foramen.
b) Lateral masses.
c) Foramen rotundum.
d) Lesser wing.
e) Foramen spinosum
b) Lateral masses.
48) Membranes that stabilize the position of the brain are attached to the
a) Crista galli.
b) Perpendicular plate.
c) Cribriform plate.
d) Styloid process.
e) Pterygoid processes
a) Crista galli.
49) The bony roof of the mouth is formed by the ________ bone(s).
a) Maxillae.
b) Vomer.
c) Palatine.
d) Sphenoid.
e) Both A and C.
e) Both A and C.
50) The bone that serves as a bridge uniting the cranial and facial bones is the
a) Sphenoid.
b) Nasal.
c) Lacrimal.
d) Ethmoid.
e) Frontal.
a) Sphenoid.
51) The superior and middle conchae
a) Attach muscles that move the jaw.
b) Attach muscles that move the eye.
c) Cause air to swirl within the nasal passageway.
d) House the pituitary gland.
e) Contain the nerves for olfaction
c) Cause air to swirl within the nasal passageway.
52) The role of the fontanels is to
a) Serve as ossification centers for the cranial bones.
b) Serve as the final bony plates of the skull.
c) Lighten the weight of the skull bones.
d) Allow for compression of the skull during childbirth.
e) Serve as ossification centers for the facial bones.
d) Allow for compression of the skull during childbirth.
53) The vertebra prominens is another name for the ________ vertebra.
a) First thoracic.
b) First cervical.
c) Fifth lumbar.
d) Seventh cervical.
e) Second cervical.
d) Seventh cervical.
54) Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of
a) Notched spinous processes.
b) Transverse processes.
c) Transverse foramina.
d) Costal cartilages.
e) Facets for the articulation of ribs.
e) Facets for the articulation of ribs.
55) The costal groove would be found on
a) Ribs.
b) Thoracic vertebrae.
c) Lumbar vertebrae.
d) The sternum.
e) Cervical vertebrae
a) Ribs.
56) The portion of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is the
a) Manubrium.
b) Xiphoid process.
c) Body.
d) Angle.
e) Tuberculum
a) Manubrium.
57) Which of the following is true of the ribs
a) They have articulations at the vertebrae on the transverse and spinous processes.
b) They have an inflexible connection at the sternum.
c) When they move they affect the width and depth of the thoracic cage.
d) All of the above.
e) A and C only.
c) When they move they affect the width and depth of the thoracic cage.
58) The role(s) of the sinuses include(s)
a) Production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air.
b) Release of hormones in response to stress.
c) Making the bone lighter.
d) Inhibition of the cough reflex.
e) Both A and C.
e) Both A and C
59) Sutures can be found at all of the joints of an adult skull except between
a) The occipital bone and the parietal bone.
b) The zygomatic bone and the maxillary bone.
c) The mandible and the cranium.
d) None of the above, as they are all sutures
c) The mandible and the cranium.
60) You witness two of your friends in a fight. Your friend Gregg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, his face looks misaligned. You immediately take him to the local emergency room and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken
a) External auditory meatus.
b) Mandible.
c) Zygomatic bone.
d) Temporal bone.
e) Clavicle.
b) Mandible.
61) While visiting your friend who recently gave birth, she comments on her new child’s soft spot. You think to yourself that the correct term for the “soft spot” is
a) Sphenoidal fontanel.
b) Anterior fontanel.
c) Mastoid fontanel.
d) Occipital fontanel.
e) Cushion spot
b) Anterior fontanel.
62) While volunteering in an outpatient clinic for underprivileged families in your neighborhood, you observe the nurse assessing an infant. The mother had complained about the baby not eating and having several episodes of diarrhea lasting 3 days. You know the nurse suspects possible dehydration when she
a) Checks the anterior fontanel for depression.
b) Checks the infant’s reflexes.
c) Points out the chubbiness of the infant’s legs.
d) Questions the mother about normal feeding habits.
e) None of the above.
a) Checks the anterior fontanel for depression.
63) The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the
a) Intervertebral space.
b) Vertebral body.
c) Articular processes.
d) Vertebral arch.
e) None of the above.
b) Vertebral body.
64) All of the following are true of lumbar vertebrae except that
a) The superior articular processes face medially.
b) The vertebral foramen is triangular.
c) The transverse process is slender and projects dorsolaterally.
d) They bear little weight.
e) They do not have costal facets.
d) They bear little weight.
65) While performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an unconscious person, you are careful to position your hands correctly to avoid damage to the
a) Xiphoid process.
b) Scapula.
c) Ribs.
d) Sacrum.
e) Both A and C.
e) Both A and C.
66) Tuberculum is to tubercle as capitulum is to
a) Ankle.
b) Clavicle.
c) Hip.
d) Leg.
e) Head.
e) Head.
67) Of the following bones, which is unpaired?
a) Vomer.
b) Palatine.
c) Maxillary.
d) Nasal.
e) None of these
a) Vomer.
68) The styloid process, zygomatic process, and auditory ossicles are associated with the
a) Occipital bone.
b) Ulna.
c) Temporal bone.
d) Sphenoid.
e) Parietal bone
c) Temporal bone.
69) The function of the hyoid is to
a) Support the larynx.
b) Support the clavicle.
c) Support the sternum.
d) Provide leverage for joint movement.
e) Support the skull.
a) Support the larynx.
70) Identify the structure the occipital bone surrounds.
a) Foramen magnus.
b) Magnum maximus.
c) Foramen magnum.
d) Foramina maximus.
e) Maximus minimus.
c) Foramen magnum.
71) Fibrous connective tissue called ________ permits skull growth in infants.
a) Sutures.
b) Vertebrae.
c) Fontanels.
d) Foramina.
e) Fonts.
c) Fontanels.
72) A bent nasal septum that slows or prevents sinus drainage is known clinically as a ________ septum.
a) Bifid.
b) Fractured.
c) Crooked.
d) Cephalic.
e) Deviated
e) Deviated
73) The smallest facial bones are termed
a) Ethmoid bones.
b) Ethyl bones.
c) Zygomatic bones.
d) Lacerum bones.
e) Lacrimal bones
e) Lacrimal bones
74) Ridges that intersect the occipital crest are termed
a) Anterior and posterior nuchal lines.
b) Superior and posterior nuchal lines.
c) Anterior and superior nuchal lines.
d) Inferior and superior nuchal lines.
e) Dorsal and ventral nuchal lines.
d) Inferior and superior nuchal lines.
75) After a hard fall, compression fractures or compression/dislocation fractures most often involve the.
a) Last two lumbar vertebrae.
b) First two cervical vertebrae.
c) Seventh cervical and first thoracic vertebrae.
d) Last thoracic and first two lumbar vertebrae.
e) Sacrum.
d) Last thoracic and first two lumbar vertebrae.
76) The ligamentum nuchae.
a) Stabilizes the lumbar vertebrae.
b) Helps to hold the head in an upright position.
c) Attaches the sternum to the ribs.
d) Attaches the atlas to the occipital bone of the skull.
e) Attaches ribs to the thoracic vertebrae.
b) Helps to hold the head in an upright position.
77) The thickest intervertebral discs are found in the ________ region.
a) Sacral.
b) Cervical.
c) Lumbar.
d) Coccygeal.
e) Thoracic.
c) Lumbar.
78) Damage to the temporal bone would most likely affect the sense of
a) Taste.
b) Hearing.
c) Touch.
d) Sight.
e) Smell
b) Hearing.
79) The mucous membrane of the paranasal sinuses will increase mucus production in response to
a) Viral or bacterial infections.
b) Irritating vapors.
c) Changes in temperature and humidity.
d) All of the above.
e) A and B only
d) All of the above.
80) If there were no paranasal sinuses, all of the following would be true, except
a) There would be less mucus in the nasal cavity.
b) The ability to trap dust and particles in the nose would be lessened.
c) More neck muscles would be required to support the skull.
d) The ability to sneeze would be impaired.
e) The skull would be heavier.
d) The ability to sneeze would be impaired.
81) Premature closure of the sagittal suture would result in
a) A long and narrow head.
b) An unusually small head.
c) A distorted head with one side being longer than the other.
d) A very broad head.
e) Death
a) A long and narrow head.
82) Which of the following statements is true concerning the coccyx?
a) Is more flexible in men.
b) Usually consists of only a single vertebra.
c) Moves forward when a person sits.
d) Is a part of the appendicular skeleton?
e) Both B and C.
c) Moves forward when a person sits.
83) As you proceed from the head down the vertebral column
a) The vertebrae become larger and heavier.
b) The spinous process becomes longer.
c) All of the above.
d) A and B only.
a) The vertebrae become larger and heavier.
84) While playing softball, Gina is struck in the frontal squama by a wild pitch. Which of the following complaints would you expect her to have?
a) A headache.
b) A sore back.
c) A sore chest.
d) A stiff neck.
e) A broken jaw.
a) A headache.
85) Mick gets into a fight and sustains a blow to the nose. Which of the following bones might be fractured by this blow?
a) Sphenoid bone.
b) Temporal bone.
c) Ethmoid bone.
d) Parietal bone.
e) Mandible
c) Ethmoid bone.
86) In a car accident, Tom suffers a fracture of the alveolar process of his maxillae. As a consequence of this injury he loses.
a) Feeling in his lower jaw.
b) His sense of smell.
c) Some teeth.
d) The ability to form tears.
e) Sight.
c) Some teeth.
87) As the result of an accident, Bill suffers a dislocated jaw. This injury would involve the.
a) Stylohyoid ligaments.
b) Greater cornu of the hyoid bone.
c) Alveolar process of the mandible.
d) Condylar process of the mandible.
e) Hyoid bone.
d) Condylar process of the mandible.
88) The occipital bone articulates with the first cervical vertebra at the ________.
a) Occipital condyles.
b) Atlas.
c) Dens.
d) Axis
a) Occipital condyles.
89) Ribs 8 to 12 are called ________ because they do not attach directly to the sternum.
a) True ribs.
b) Floating ribs.
c) False ribs.
d) None of the above.
e) All of the above.
c) False ribs.
90) The transverse foramina protect the ________ and ________, which are important blood vessels that service the brain.
a) Vertebral arteries; vertebral veins.
b) Vertebral veins, Cortaid arteries.
c) Vertebral arteries, jugular veins.
d) Cortaid arteries, jugular veins.
a) Vertebral arteries; vertebral veins.
91) An injury caused by displacement of the cervical vertebrae during a sudden change in body position is known as ________.
a) Whiplash.
b) Whipsream.
c) Whipcream.
d) Whipsmash.
e) Whipcrash.
a) Whiplash.
92) Billy is injured during a high school football game. His chest is badly bruised and he is experiencing difficulty in breathing. What might the problem be?
a) It is possible that the injury caused a rib to pierce one of the lungs, resulting in a condition known as a pneumothorax, or collapsed lung.
b) Billy has probably broken one or more of his ribs.
c) A and B.
d) Neither A nor B.
c) A and B.
93) The structural features and skeletal components of the sternum make it a part of the axial skeleton, which is important in a variety of clinical situations. If you were teaching this information to prospective nursing students, what clinical applications would you cite?
a) Because it is accessible, the body of the sternum is often used as a site for taking red bone marrow samples.
b) The xiphoid process is used as a landmark in CPR.
c) A broken xiphoid process can cause injury to nearby organs.
d) All of the above.
e) None of the above.
d) All of the above.
94) Why are ruptured intervertebral discs more common in lumbar vertebrae and dislocations and fractures more common in cervical vertebrae?
a) The lumbar vertebrae are more delicate and have small bodies. The cervical vertebrae have massive bodies and carry a lot of weight.
b) The lumbar vertebrae have massive bodies and carry a lot of weight. The cervical vertebrae are more delicate and have small bodies.
c) Neither A nor B.
d) Both A and B.
b) The lumbar vertebrae have massive bodies and carry a lot of weight. The cervical vertebrae are more delicate and have small bodies.
95) Joe is 40 years old and 30 pounds overweight. Like many middle-aged men, Joe carries most of this extra weight in his abdomen and jokes with his friends about his “beer gut.” During an annual physical, Joe’s physician advises him that his spine is developing an abnormal curvature. What is this condition called?
a) Lordosis.
b) Arteriosis.
c) Scoliosis.
d) Kiphosis.
e) Symphosis.
a) Lordosis.
96) The frontal and parietal bones articulate at the ________ suture.
a) Coronal.
b) Squamous.
c) Occipital.
d) Sagittal.
e) Lambdoid.
a) Coronal.
97) The axial skeleton contains:
a) The skull, vertebral column, and pelvis.
b) Arms, legs, hands, and feet.
c) The skull, vertebral column, and rib cage.
d) The shoulder and pelvic girdles.
e) Only flat bones.
c) The skull, vertebral column, and rib cage.
98) The suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the ________ suture, whereas the suture that connects the parietal bones to the occipital bone is the _______ suture.
a) Coronal; sagittal.
b) Sagittal; coronal.
c) Sagittal; Lambdoid.
d) Lambdoid; squamosal.
e) Squamosal; Lambdoid.
c) Sagittal; Lambdoid.
99) The middle nasal conchae are found on the:
a) Maxillae.
b) Sphenoid bone.
c) Nasal bone.
d) Vomer bone.
e) Ethmoid bone
e) Ethmoid bone
100) The hyoid bone is unique because:
a) It is the only bone of the body that does not directly articulate with any other bone.
b) It has an unusual shape.
c) It is covered with mucosa.
d) It has no specific function.
e) It largely consists of cartilage.
a) It is the only bone of the body that does not directly articulate with any other bone.
101) The mastoid process is a landmark on the:
a) Parietal bone.
b) Ethmoid bone.
c) sphenoid bone
d) Temporal bone.
e) Frontal bone
d) Temporal bone.
102) The five regions of the vertebral column, from superior to inferior, are:
a) Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, coccygeal.
b) Cervical, sacral, thoracic, coccygeal, lumbar.
c) Cervical, lumbar, sacral, thoracic, coccygeal.
d) Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal.
e) Cervical, thoracic, sacral, lumbar, coccygeal.
d) Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, coccygeal.
103) There is ________ lumbar vertebra; whereas there is ________ thoracic vertebra.
a) 12; 5.
b) 12; 7.
c) 7; 5.
d) 5; 7.
e) 5; 12.
e) 5; 12.
104) Only the ________ has an odontoid process.
a) Last cervical vertebra.
b) Last lumbar vertebra.
c) Atlas.
d) Axis.
e) Coccyx
d) Axis.
106) There is ________ pair of true ribs, whereas there is ________ pair of floating ribs.
a) 5; 7.
b) 5; 2.
c) 7; 5.
d) 7; 2.
e) 2; 5.
d) 7; 2.
107) Which of the following is correct of the female pelvis when comparing it with the male pelvis:
a) The angle of the female pubic arch is smaller.
b) The distance between the female ischial spines is greater.
c) The distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less.
d) The female iliac bones are less flared.
e) The female pelvis as a whole is deeper, and the bones are heavier and thicker.
b) The distance between the female ischial spines is greater.
105) Which is the correct order of ribs, from superior to inferior:
a) Floating ribs, true ribs, false ribs.
b) Floating ribs, false ribs, true ribs.
c) True ribs, false ribs, floating ribs.
d) True ribs, floating ribs, false ribs.
e) False ribs, floating ribs, true ribs.
c) True ribs, false ribs, floating ribs
108) Which of the following is a false statement
a) The master gland of the body (pituitary gland) is housed in a saddlelike depression in the temporal bone called the sella turcica.
b) There are seven cervical, twelve thoracic, and five lumbar vertebrae.
c) True ribs are directly connected to the sternum by costal cartilages
d) Craniostenosis is premature ossification of the fontanels occurring in infancy or early childhood.
e) Spina bifida is the clinical term for the condition in which the vertebral laminae fail to unite during development.
a) The master gland of the body (pituitary gland) is housed in a saddlelike depression in the temporal bone called the sella turcica.
109) Frank gets into a brawl at a sports event and receives a broken nose. After the nose heals, he starts to have sinus headaches and discomfort in the area of his maxillae. Frank probably has a deviated septum as the result of his broken nose.
a) False.
b) True.
b) True.
110) Ribs numbered 11 and 12 are true ribs because they have no anterior attachments.
a) True.
b) False.
b) False.
111) which of the following is a true statement
a) Condyles are found in the axial skeleton only.
b) The mastoid process cannot be palpated on a living person.
c) Paranasal sinuses are lined by mucous membranes and filled with mucus.
d) Sutures are found in the cranial bones, facial bones, and sacral bones.
e) Trochanters are unique to the femur
e) Trochanters are unique to the femur
113) which of the following is a true statement
a) Men have one rib fewer than women.
b) Medial and lateral condyles of the femur are involved in the hip joint.
c) There are three bones in the pollex.
d) The pubic symphysis can be palpated as a hard prominence above the genitalia.
e) The ischium is posterior to the pubis and superior to the ilium.
d) The pubic symphysis can be palpated as a hard prominence above the genitalia.
114) All of these contribute to the wall of the orbit except
a) The sphenoid bone.
b) The frontal bone.
c) The maxilla.
d) The zygomatic bone.
e) The nasal bone
c) The maxilla.
115) Vertebrae are divided into five groups, usually ____ cervical, ____thoracic, ____ lumbar, ___ sacral, and ____ coccygeal.
a) 12; 7; 5; 5; 4.
b) 12; 5; 5; 7; 4.
c) 7; 5; 5; 12; 4
d) 7; 12; 5; 5; 4.
e) 7; 5; 5; 4; 12
d) 7; 12; 5; 5; 4.
116) The appendicular skeleton consists of all of the following, except the
a) Bones that connect the limbs to the axial skeleton.
b) Hyoid bone.
c) Bones of the arms.
d) Bones at the hands and feet.
e) Bones of the legs.
b) Hyoid bone.
117) Which of the following is not a component of the appendicular skeleton?
a) femur
b) scapula
c) humerus
d) os coxae
e) sacrum
e) sacrum
118) Structural characteristics of the pectoral girdle that adapt it to a wide range of movement include
a) Relatively weak joints.
b) Heavy bones.
c) Joints stabilized by ligaments and tendons.
d) all of the above
e) B and C only
a) Relatively weak joints.
119) The pectoral girdle contains the
a) Scapula.
b) Manubrium.
c) Humerus.
d) Sternum.
e) both A and B
a) Scapula.
120) Which end of the clavicle is the larger end?
a) sternal
b) inferior
c) superior
d) acromial
e) medial
d) acromial
121) The small, anterior projection of the scapula that extends over the superior margin of the glenoid fossa is the
a) Coracoid process.
b) Median process.
c) Supraspinous fossa.
d) Acromion.
e) Scapular spine.
a) Coracoid process.
122) The clavicle articulates with the scapula at the
a) Scapular spine.
b) Acromion process.
c) Subscapular fossa.
d) Coracoid process.
e) Glenoid tuberosity
b) Acromion process.
123) A landmark found near the proximal end of the humerus would be the
a) Lateral epicondyle.
b) Olecranon fossa.
c) Medial epicondyle.
d) Capitulum.
e) Greater tubercle.
e) Greater tubercle.
124) The depression on the anterior medial surface at the distal end of the humerus is the
a) Olecranon fossa.
b) Radial groove.
c) Radial fossa.
d) Intertubercular groove.
e) Coronoid fossa
e) Coronoid fossa
125) The bone of the forearm include the
a) Femur.
b) Tibia.
c) Fibula.
d) Humerus.
e) Radius.
e) Radius.
126) The olecranon process is found on the
a) Tibia.
b) Ulna.
c) Radius.
d) Femur.
e) Humerus
b) Ulna.
127) The process that extends along the lateral border of the shaft of the humerus is the
a) Medial epicondyle.
b) Radial groove.
c) Lateral epicondyle.
d) Coronoid process.
e) Deltoid tuberosity
e) Deltoid tuberosity
128) The radius articulates with the
a) Humerus.
b) Ulna.
c) Scapula.
d) Both A and C
e) Both A and B
e) Both A and B
129) The ________ of the radius assists in the stabilization of the wrist joint.
a) Capitulum
b) coronoid process
c) olecranon process
d) radial tuberosity
e) styloid process
e) styloid process
130) The bones that form the wrist are the
a) Metacarpals.
b) Tarsals.
c) Metatarsals.
d) Phalanges.
e) Carpals.
e) Carpals.
131) The bones that form the palms of the hands are the
a) Carpals.
b) Phalanges.
c) Metatarsals.
d) Tarsals.
e) Metacarpals
e) Metacarpals
132) The bones that form the fingers are the
a) Carpals.
b) Tarsals.
c) Metatarsals.
d) Phalanges.
e) Metacarpals.
d) Phalanges.
133) The wrist, or carpals, contains ________ bones.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
e) 14
d) 8
134) Each of the following bones is part of the pelvic girdle, except the
a) Ischium.
b) Pubis.
c) Os coxae.
d) Femur.
e) Ilium.
d) Femur.
135) Which of the following is not a part of the pelvis?
a) Sacrum
b) lumbar vertebrae
c) coccyx
d) coxae
e) both B and D
b) lumbar vertebrae
136) What bone articulates with the coxa at the acetabulum?
a) fibula
b) femur
c) tibia
d) sacrum
e) humerus
b) femur
137) Each os coxae are formed by the fusion of ________ bones.
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
e) 6
b) 3
138) The largest coxal bone is the
a) Femur.
b) Pubis.
c) Tibia.
d) Ischium.
e) Ilium.
e) Ilium.
139) The superior border of the ilium that acts as a point of attachment for both ligaments and muscles is the
a) Posterior superior iliac spine.
b) Anterior iliac spine.
c) Iliac notch.
d) Acetabulum.
e) Iliac crest.
e) Iliac crest.
140) The greater sciatic notch would be found on the
a) Femur.
b) Ilium.
c) Patella.
d) Ischium.
e) Pubis.
b) Ilium.
141) The ischial spine projects above the
a) Lesser sciatic notch.
b) Ischial tuberosity.
c) Pubic symphysis.
d) Ischial notch.
e) Ischial ramus
a) Lesser sciatic notch.
142) When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the
a) Iliac crests.
b) Inferior rami of the pubis.
c) Posterior inferior iliac spines.
d) Ischial tuberosities.
e) Obturator foramina
d) Ischial tuberosities.
143) The pubic and ischial rami encircle the
a) Lesser sciatic notch.
b) Obturator foramen.
c) Acetabulum.
d) Pubic symphysis.
e) Greater sciatic notch
b) Obturator foramen.
144) The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the
a) Humerus.
b) Femur.
c) Fibula.
d) Coxa.
e) Tibia.
b) Femur.
145) The distal end of the tibia articulates with the
a) Patella.
b) Coxa.
c) Fibula.
d) Calcaneus.
e) Talus.
e) Talus.
146) The medial bulge at your ankle is a projection from the
a) Femur.
b) Fibula.
c) Talus.
d) Calcaneus.
e) Tibia.
e) Tibia.
147) The lateral malleolus is found on the
a) Femur.
b) Fibula.
c) Tibia.
d) Calcaneus.
e) Patella.
b) Fibula.
148) The fibula articulates with the
a) Femur.
b) Navicular.
c) Tibia.
d) Patella.
e) both A and B
c) Tibia.
149) The ankle, or tarsus, contains ________ bones.
a) 2
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
e) 8
d) 7
150) Which of the following is the heel bone?
a) calcaneus
b) cuboid
c) patella
d) talus
e) navicular
a) calcaneus
151) The sole of the foot is supported by the
a) Metacarpals.
b) Tarsals.
c) Carpals.
d) Metatarsals.
e) both B and D
e) both B and D
152) Another name for the first toe is
a) Pollex.
b) Hallux.
c) Tarsal.
d) First cuneiform.
e) Phalanx.
b) Hallux.
153) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the male pelvis?
a) ilia extend farther above sacrum
b) heart-shaped pelvic inlet
c) angle of pubic arch greater than 100 degrees
d) relatively deep iliac fossa
e) heavy, rough textured bone
c) angle of pubic arch greater than 100 degrees
154) Which of the following is a characteristic of the male pelvis?
a) ischial spine points posteriorly
b) triangular obturator foramen
c) bone markings not very prominent
d) sacrum broad and short
e) coccyx points anteriorly
e) coccyx points anteriorly
155) Study of human skeletons can reveal information concerning the person’s
a) Size and handedness.
b) Age and nutritional status.
c) Sex.
d) all of the above
e) A and B only
d) all of the above
156) Compared to the male skeleton, the female skeleton
a) Is heavier.
b) Has a greater angle inferior to the pubic symphysis.
c) Is larger.
b) Has a greater angle inferior to the pubic symphysis.
157) Differences in the skeletons of males and females can best be seen in the characteristics of the
a) Teeth.
b) Skull.
c) Pelvis.
d) Sacrum.
e) Thoracic cage
c) Pelvis.
158) Which of the following is not an age-related change in the skeleton?
a) appearance of major vertebral curves
b) remodeling of the bone
c) closure of the fontanels
d) reduction in mineral content
e) fusion of the coxal bones
b) remodeling of the bone
159) The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the
a) Clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process.
b) Clavicle articulates with the humerus.
c) Vertebral column articulates with the skull.
d) Clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum.
e) Os coxae articulate with the femur.
d) Clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum.
160) Each os coxae of the pelvic girdle consists of the following three fused bones:
a) Femur, patella, and tibia.
b) Ulna, radius, and humerus.
c) Femur, tibia, and fibula.
d) Ilium, ischium, and pubis.
e) Hamate, capitate, and trapezium.
d) Ilium, ischium, and pubis.
161) What markings found on bones are indicative of nerve pathways?
a) Ridges
b) Foramina
c) Flanges
d) Sulci
e) both B and D
e) both B and D
162) The three sides of this bone form a broad triangle.
a) sternum
b) vertebra
c) radius
d) clavicle
e) scapula
e) scapula
163) The glenohumeral joint is an articulation between which two bones?
a) scapula and humerus
b) humerus and ulna
c) clavicle and humerus
d) clavicle and scapula
e) none of the above
a) scapula and humerus
164) The prominent portion of the humerus that is a rounded projection on the lateral surface of the epiphysis, near the margin of the humeral head, is known as the
a) Greater tubercle.
b) Lesser tubercle.
c) Lesser trochanter.
d) Greater trochanter.
e) Neck.
a) Greater tubercle.
165) In the anatomical position, the ulna is located ________ to the radius.
a) Medial
b) Distal
c) Superior
d) Proximal
e) none of these
a) Medial
166) Lateral to the coronoid process, the radial ________ holds the head of the radius in the joint.
a) notch
b) muscle
c) ligament
d) groove
e) tendon
a) notch
167) There are ________ carpal bones located in the wrist, which form ________ rows of bones in the wrist.
a) 2; 8
b) 6; 2
c) 10; 3
d) 4; 2
e) 8; 2
e) 8; 2
168) Each hand has ________ finger bones.
a) 14
b) 10
c) 18
d) 20
e) 15
a) 14
169) Which landmark along the ilium is an attachment site for large hip muscles?
a) greater sciatic notch
b) gluteal lines
c) iliac spines
d) both A and C
e) none of the above
b) gluteal lines
170) Ellen is 38 weeks pregnant and is in active labor. In your nursing assessment you should expect the fetal head to descend through which anatomical landmark(s)?
a) pelvic outlet
b) pubic symphysis
c) pelvic inlet
d) none of the above
e) both A and C
e) both A and C
171) A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman’s pelvic outlet.
a) Smaller
b) Larger
c) Longer
d) wider
a) Smaller
172) The Achilles tendon attaches to which anatomical structure?
a) lesser trochanter
b) cuboid bone
c) talus
d) navicular bone
e) calcaneus
e) calcaneus
173) The longitudinal arch does all of the following, except that it
a) Acts as a shock absorber.
b) Provides a safe path for the nerves.
c) Squeezes the muscles.
d) Protects the nerves.
e) Provides an elastic cushion for our feet.
c) Squeezes the muscles.
174) Degenerative changes in the skeleton generally begin around which age?
a) 21
b) 40-50
c) 18-25
d) 30-45
e) none of the above
d) 30-45
175) The only fixed support for the pectoral girdle is the
a) Shoulder musculature.
b) Scapula.
.
d) Sternum.
e) Humerus
c) Clavicle
176) Tina falls and fractures her pisiform bone. What part of her body was injured?
a) hand
b) forearm
c) shoulder
d) upper arm
e) wrist
e) wrist
177) When standing normally, most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by the
a) Talus and cuneiforms.
b) Calcaneus and cuboid.
c) Calcaneus and cuneiforms.
d) Cuboid and cuneiforms.
e) Talus and calcaneus
e) Talus and calcaneus
178) Body weight is passed to the metatarsals by way of the
a) Talus and cuneiforms.
b) Calcaneus and cuneiforms.
c) Talus and calcaneus.
d) Calcaneus and cuboid.
e) Cuboid and cuneiforms.
e) Cuboid and cuneiforms.
179) Compared to the hand, the foot
a) Have fewer metatarsals than the hand has metacarpals.
b) Has the same number of tarsals as the hand has carpals.
c) Has a more restricted range of movement.
d) Have more phalanges.
e) Contains ellipsoidal arches that help distribute body weight.
c) Has a more restricted range of movement.
180) Because of a developmental defect, Joe is born without clavicles. As a result of this condition, you would expect
a) Him to have an increased range of motion at the shoulder joint.
b) The humerus to not attach at the scapula.
c) Him to have little use of his arms.
d) A complete lack of mobility of the shoulder joint.
e) Him to have less mobility at the shoulder joint
a) Him to have an increased range of motion at the shoulder joint.
181) The condition known as “flat feet” is due to a lower than normal longitudinal arch in the foot. A problem with which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition?
a) poor alignment of the phalanges with the metatarsals
b) weak tarsometatarsal joints
c) a loose Achilles tendon
d) weakness in the ligaments and tendons that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsals
e) weakness in the ligaments and tendons that attach the talus to the calcaneus
d) weakness in the ligaments and tendons that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsals
182) On a field trip you discover a skeleton with the following characteristics. The skull has a large sloping forehead and a large mandible with large teeth. The acetabulum is directed laterally, the ischial spine points medially, and the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis is less than 90 degrees. The long bones of the arms and legs are relatively light and they show definite signs of epiphyseal plates. This skeleton is probably from
a) A young female.
b) A young male.
c) An elderly male.
d) An elderly female.
e) cannot tell on the basis of this information
b) A young male.
183) The “pinky finger” is known as metacarpal number I.
a) True
b) False
b) False
184) How the arches of the foot assist in weight distribution.
a) The arches absorb shock as weight distribution shifts during movments
b) The longitudinal arch absorbs most of the shock of steps
c) The transverse arch distributes the weight evenly
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
d) All of the above
185) How do anatomists distinguish between the false (greater) pelvis and the true (lesser) pelvis?
a) The true pelvis encloses the pelvic cavity and its superior limits is a line that extends from either side of the base of the sacrum, along the arcuate line and pectineal line to the pubic symphysis
b) The false pelvis consist of the expanded, bladelike portion of each ilium superior to the pelvic brim
c) There is NO true distinction
d) A and B
d) A and B
186) The two largest foot bones are the:
a) distal and middle phalanges
b) middle and proximal phalanges
c) metatarsals 1 and 2
d) metatarsals 4 and 5
e) talus and calcaneus
e) talus and calcaneus
187) A structure found on the femur is the:
a) anterior crest
b) lateral malleolus
c) intercondylar fossa
d) medial malleolus
c) intercondylar fossa
188) In anatomical position, the lateral forearm bone is the radius.
a) True
b) False
a) True
189) The tibia is also known as the shinbone.
a) True
b) False
a) True
190) To settle a bet, you need to measure the length of your lower limb (femur and tibia). What landmarks would you use to make the measurement?
a) You could feel the inferior iliac notch, which is at the same level as the head of the femur.
b) You could feel the medial malleolus of the tibia at the ankle.
c) You could feel the lateral malleolus of the fibula at the ankle.
d) All of the above
e) A and B
e) A and B
191) Your son is just learning to ride a two-wheeled bike. In his first solo attempt, he hits the curb and falls forward over the handlebars. You watch him hit the sidewalk hands first, followed by the rest of his body. What skeletal elements might be injured in this fall? Trace the pathway of stress on his bones, and indicate the most likely area for fracture.
a) The stresses will follow this pathway: metacarpal bones, carpal bones, radius and ulna, humerus, clavicle, perhaps scapula and sternum.
b) The greatest possibility of fracture will occur at the clavicle because this is the least supported of the bones and the stress is not directed along the long axis of the clavicle
c) Both
d) Neither
c) Both
192) Why is it necessary for the bones of the pelvic girdle to be more massive than the bones of the pectoral girdle?
a) Pelvic girdle bones withstand more stress involved with weight bearing and moving the body
b) Both girdles have the same mass
c) Pectoral girdle bones withstand more stress involved with weight bearing and moving the body
a) Pelvic girdle bones withstand more stress involved with weight bearing and moving the body