Exercise Physiology flash card

The somatic nervous system most specifically belongs to which division of the nervous
system?
a. peripheral
b. autonomic
c. sensory
d. motor
d. motor
The basic structural unit of the nervous system is the
a. myelin
b. axon
c. neuron
d. dendrite
c. neuron
Which neurotransmitter binds to receptors on the motor end plate of a neuromuscular
junction?
a. norepinephrine
b. acetylcholine
c. serotonin
d. dopamine
b. acetylcholine
The sympathetic nervous system would contribute to
a. increased heart rate
b. skeletal muscle contraction
c. skeletal muscle inhibition
d. increased energy conservation
a. increased heart rate
Which of the following is associated with the parasympathetic nervous system?
a. increased mental activity
b. higher blood glucose levels
c. coronary arteriole constriction
d. bronchodilation
c. coronary arteriole constriction
Reflexes associated with Golgi tendon organs prevent skeletal muscles from
a. stretching too far
b. contracting with too much force
c. accumulating too much lactic acid
d. exercising too long
b. contracting with too much force
Sensory impulses that result in controlled and coordinated movements are integrated in
the
a. spinal cord
b. brain stem
c. cerebellum
d. cerebrum
c. cerebellum
Muscles controlling fine movements have _________ muscle fibers per alpha-motor neuron. Muscles with more general functions have _________ fibers per alpha-motor neuron.

a. a small number of/a small number of
b. a small number of/many
c. many/a small number of
d. many/many

b. a small number of/many
What statement is true of muscle spindles?
a. They sense tension in muscles; they inhibit the contracting muscles and excite the antagonist muscles.

b. They supply information on the length and rate of change in length.

c. They initiate movements of a sustained and repetitive nature.

d. They stimulate reflexive muscle relaxation.

b. They supply information on the length and rate of change in length
Sensory impulses that terminate in the spinal cord typically result in a conscious movement.
a. true

b. false

b. false
What statement is NOT true of the brain stem?
a. All sensory and motor nerves pass through it as they relay information between the brain and the spinal cord.

b. It contains the major autonomic regulatory centers that exert control over the respiratory and cardiovascular systems.

c. It is the site of origin of all the cranial nerves.

d. The reticular formation runs the entire length of the brain stem and influences nearly all areas of the central nervous system.

c. It is the site of origin of all the cranial nerves.
Neurons in the _________ let us consciously control movement of our skeletal muscles.
a. basal ganglia

b. pyramidal cells

c. primary motor cortex

d. premotor cortex

c. primary motor cortex
The sum of all changes in the membrane potential must equal or exceed the threshold to cause sufficient depolarization to generate an action potential.
a. true

b. false

a. true
What statement best describes dendrites?

a. They are the neuron’s receivers; they carry the impulses away from the cell body, and most neurons contain many of them.

b. They are the neuron’s receivers; they carry the impulses toward the cell body, and most neurons contain many of them.

c. They are the neuron’s transmitters; they carry the impulses away from the cell body, and most neurons contain only one of them.

d. They are the neuron’s transmitters; they carry the impulses toward the cell body, and most neurons contain only one of them.

b. They are the neuron’s receivers; they carry the impulses toward the cell body, and most neurons contain many of them
The central nervous system transmits information to various parts of the body through the motor, or efferent, division of the peripheral nervous system.
a. true

b. false

a. true
The _________ receive(s) all sensory input entering the brain.
a. pyramidal cells

b. primary motor cortex

c. cerebellum

d. diencephalon

d. diencephalon
What nervous system prepares your body to face a crisis, regulating the fight-or-flight response?
a. parasympathetic nervous system

b. central nervous system

c. sympathetic nervous system

d. sensory-motor nervous system

c. sympathetic nervous system
Which statement is NOT true of an action potential?
a. Any time depolarization reaches or exceeds the threshold, an action potential will result.

b. An action potential is a rapid and substantial depolarization of the neuron’s membrane.

c. An action potential always begins as a graded potential.

d. An action potential is usually just a local event, so the depolarization does not spread very far along the neuron.

d. An action potential is usually just a local event, so the depolarization does not spread very far along the neuron.
The autonomic nervous system regulates all of the following functions EXCEPT
a. heart rate

b. respiration

c. blood distribution

d. motor control

d. motor control
The velocity of a nerve impulse transmission is primarily determined by

a. myelination and diameter of the neurons

b. absolute refractory and relative refractory

c. number of muscle fibers per alpha-motor neuron

d. sodium concentration

a. myelination and diameter of the neurons
A nerve impulse can be transmitted across a synapse in only one direction.
a. true

b. false

a. true
Depolarization occurs any time the charge difference in a neuron increases, moving from the resting membrane potential to an even more negative number.
a. true

b. false

b. false
Glycogen is stored in the _________ until needed.
a. heart or liver

b. smooth muscles or pancreas

c. liver or muscle

c. liver or muscle
The glycolytic system has a tremendous energy-yielding capacity, so it is the primary method of energy production during endurance events.
a. true

b. false

b. false
A healthy body uses little protein during rest and exercise.
a. true

b. false

a. true
Energy for muscular activity and cellular operations is primarily derived from
a. carbohydrate, fat, and sodium

b. carbohydrate, fat, and protein

c. carbohydrate, iron, and water

d. carbohydrate, protein, and water

b. carbohydrate, fat, and protein
When phosphorylation occurs without the aid of oxygen, it is called aerobic metabolism.
a. true

b. false

b. false
NADH molecules, formed in the _____________, cannot directly enter the mitochondria.
a. nucleus

b. sarcoplasm

c. electron transport chain

b. sarcoplasm
Lactate produced during exercise can be utilized by which of the following tissues?
a. adjacent muscle fibers

b. heart

c. liver

d. brain

e. all of these

e. all of these
An example of an energy substrate is
a. ATP
b. palmitic acid
c. phosphofructokinase
d. creatine kinase
b. palmitic acid
Which of these substrate stores in the body can provide the most overall kilocalories?
a. glycogen
b. phospholipids
c. proteins
d. triglycerides
d. triglycerides
Protein can serve as an energy substrate if
a. certain amino acids are present
b. it is utilized by the brain
c. it is phosphorylated first
d. it is first converted to glucose
d. it is first converted to glucose
Which of the following is responsible for lowering the activation energy of a chemical
reaction?
a. ATP
b. additional buildup of substrate
c. enzyme activity
d. ADP accumulation
c. enzyme activity
The anaerobic glycolytic system would be the primary source of ATP for which running
event?
a. 100 m sprint
b. 800 m (1/2 mi) run
c. 3,200 m (2 mi) run
d. marathon
b. 800 m (1/2 mi) run
In the absence of oxygen, the final product of glycolysis is
a. pyruvic acid
b. acetyl-CoA
c. glucose-1-phosphate
d. lactic acid
d. lactic acid
For aerobic metabolism, free fatty acids must be converted to acetyl-CoA via
a. the Krebs cycle
b. the electron transport chain
c. beta-oxidation
d. the citric acid cycle
c. beta-oxidation
Taking into account both oxygen requirements and ATP yield, which substrate is more
efficient, fat or glucose?
a. Fat is more efficient.
b. Glucose is more efficient.
c. They are equally efficient.
b. Glucose is more efficient.
In which part of the cell does oxidative phosphorylation occur?
a. plasma membrane
b. nucleus
c. cytosol
d. mitochondria
d. mitochondria
An athlete with a high percentage of type II fibers would exhibit which characteristics?
a. more mitochondria, higher oxidative enzymes
b. more mitochondria, lower oxidative enzymes
c. fewer mitochondria, higher oxidative enzymes
d. fewer mitochondria, lower oxidative enzymes
d. fewer mitochondria, lower oxidative enzymes
Smooth muscle is called
a. voluntary muscle and makes up most of the heart’s structure

b. involuntary muscle and makes up most of the heart’s structure

c. voluntary muscle and is found in the walls of most blood vessels

d. involuntary muscle and is found in the walls of most blood vessels

d. involuntary muscle and is found in the walls of most blood vessels
Cardiac muscle is
a. involuntary muscle and is found in the heart, the blood vessels, and the walls of many internal organs

b. voluntary muscle and is found in the heart and the blood vessels

c. involuntary muscle and is found only in the heart

d. voluntary muscle and is found only in the heart

c. involuntary muscle and is found only in the heart
Type IIa fibers are the most frequently recruited muscle fibers.
a. true

b. false

b. false
Skeletal muscle is
a. voluntary muscle and is attached to and moves the skeleton

b. voluntary muscle and is attached to both the skeleton and the internal organs

c. involuntary muscle and is attached to and moves the skeleton

d. involuntary muscle and is attached to both the skeleton and the internal organs

a. voluntary muscle and is attached to and moves the skeleton
The force of a muscle contraction is graded in what type of muscle contraction?
a. concentric

b. static

c. eccentric

d. all of these

d. all of these
Myosin ATPase is the enzyme that splits ATP to release energy for driving contraction.
a. true

b. false

a. true
Which statement best describes the three main types of muscle action?
a. concentric, in which the muscle decelerates; static (isometric), in which the muscle speed stays the same; and eccentric, in which the muscle accelerates

b. concentric, in which the muscle shortens; static (isometric), in which the muscle contracts but the joint angle is unchanged; and eccentric, in which the muscle lengthens

c. concentric, in which the muscle acts in a circular fashion; dynamic, in which joint movement is produced; and eccentric, in which the muscle lengthens

d. concentric, in which the muscle weakens; static (isometric), in which the muscle strength stays the same; and eccentric, in which the muscle strengthens

b. concentric, in which the muscle shortens; static (isometric), in which the muscle contracts but the joint angle is unchanged; and eccentric, in which the muscle lengthens
Type II fibers have a fast form of ATPase, which means ATP is split more rapidly in type II fibers than in type I fibers.
a. true

b. false

a. true
What does not help increase force production?
a. using an optimal joint angle when performing the movement

b. recruiting more motor units

c. increasing the frequency of motor unit stimulation

d. executing the movement rapidly in eccentric actions

d. executing the movement rapidly in eccentric actions
A series of three stimuli in rapid sequence, before complete muscle relaxation from the first stimulus, is called
a. twitch

b. summation

c. tetanus

d. rate coding

b. summation
Type II fibers have a more highly developed sarcoplasmic reticulum than do type I fibers.
a. true

b. false

a. true
The difference in the size of motor units means that when a single type I alpha-motor neuron stimulates its fibers, far more muscle fibers contract than when a single type II alpha-motor neuron stimulates its fibers.
a. true

b. false

a. true
People who have a predominance of type II fibers in their leg muscles tend to be better at aerobic endurance activities than people who have a high percentage of type I fibers.
a. true

b. false

b. false
Training may induce a change of about _____ in the percentage of type I and type II fibers.
a. 10%

b. 15%

c. 20%

d. 25%

a. 10%
Because type II fibers are usually larger than type I fibers, they generate more force and have more muscle fibers per motor unit than do type I muscle fibers.
a. true

b. false

a. true
What is the most critical mineral in the process of excitation-contraction coupling?
a. manganese

b. iron

c. calcium

d. phosphorus

e. all of these

f. none of these

c. calcium
Muscle found in the walls of the bladder is an example of
a. cardiac muscle
b. skeletal muscle
c. smooth muscle
c. smooth muscle
Which of these is the correct order of skeletal muscle hierarchical organization, from
largest structure to smallest structure?
a. muscle fasciculus, entire muscle, myofibril, muscle fiber
b. entire muscle, muscle fasciculus, muscle fiber, myofibril
c. muscle fiber, myofibril, entire muscle, muscle fasciculus
d. myofibril, muscle fiber, muscle fasciculus, entire muscle
b. entire muscle, muscle fasciculus, muscle fiber, myofibril
Ca2+ ions (essential for contraction) are stored in the
a. sarcoplasm
b. sarcolemma
c. sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. T-tubules
c. sarcoplasmic reticulum
Which protein is sensitive to Ca2+ and thereby helps initiate contraction?
a. actin
b. myosin
c. troponin
d. tropomyosin
c. troponin
The process of plasmalemma depolarization involves which ion?
a. Na+
b. K+
c. Ca2+
d. Cl-
a. Na+
Which is the correct order of events in a contraction?
a. T-tubule action potential, Ca2+ gathered in, cross-bridging, Ca2+ released
b. Ca2+ released, cross-bridging, Ca2+ gathered in, T-tubule action potential
c. cross-bridging, Ca2+ released, Ca2+ gathered in, T-tubule action potential
d. T-tubule action potential, Ca2+ released, cross-bridging, Ca2+ gathered in
d. T-tubule action potential, Ca2+ released, cross-bridging, Ca2+ gathered in
ATP is required for
a. muscle contraction only
b. muscle relaxation only
c. both muscle contraction and muscle relaxation
d. neither muscle contraction nor muscle relaxation
c. both muscle contraction and muscle relaxation
Type I muscle fibers
a. have a high oxidative capacity
b. store large quantities of glycogen
c. generate force quickly
d. fatigue quickly
a. have a high oxidative capacity
The speed of muscle fiber contraction is determined primarily by the
a. amount of actin and myosin
b. amount of actin ATPase
c. diameter of the muscle fiber
d. speed of myosin ATPase
d. speed of myosin ATPase
Why does a sarcomere that is too short or too stretched produce less force?
a. Thick filaments get damaged.
b. Thin filaments become unraveled.
c. Not as many cross-bridges can form.
d. The reduction in force is negligible and can be ignored.
c. Not as many cross-bridges can form.
If you want to measure your BMR, you should NOT
a. be in bed, asleep, by 10:00 pm and wake up at 7:00 am

b. eat supper at 6:00 pm and plan to wake up at 7:00 am

c. remain in a supine, resting position when you wake up

d. have a glass of warm milk at 10:00 pm to put you to sleep by midnight so that you can wake up at 7:00 am

d. have a glass of warm milk at 10:00 pm to put you to sleep by midnight so that you can wake up at 7:00 am

BMR is your rate of energy expenditure at rest in a supine position, measured immediately after at least 8 hours of sleep and at least 12 hours of fasting. It reflects the minimum amount of energy required to carry on your essential physiological functions.

The measure regarded by most as the best single measurement of cardiorespiratory endurance and aerobic fitness is known by all of the following terms EXCEPT
a. VO2max

b. VO2 drift

c. maximal oxygen uptake

d. aerobic capacity

b. VO2 drift

VO2max, maximal oxygen uptake, and aerobic capacity all mean the same thing. VO2 drift refers to a slow increase in VO2 during prolonged, submaximal, constant-power-output exercise.

In events lasting longer than a few seconds, glycogen stored in the _________ is the primary energy source for ATP synthesis.
a. liver

b. heart

c. pancreas

d. muscle

d. muscle
Sprints in running, cycling, and swimming do not result in accumulation of lactic acid.
a. true

b. false

b. false
What factor does NOT affect total daily caloric expenditure?
a. age

b. sex

c. size

d. height

d. height
If maximal adaptation to VO2max is achieved in 8 to 12 weeks of training, yet endurance performance continues to improve, which is most likely the cause for the continued improvement?
a. reductions in mitochondrial mass

b. increase in the number of slow-twitch muscle fibers

c. increased RMR

d. increased lactate threshold

d. increased lactate threshold
If maximal adaptation to VO2max is achieved in 8 to 12 weeks of training, yet endurance performance continues to improve, which is most likely the cause for the continued improvement?
a. reductions in mitochondrial mass

b. increase in the number of slow-twitch muscle fibers

c. increased RMR

d. increased lactate threshold

d. increased lactate threshold
The rate at which your body uses energy is referred to as your _______________.
a. aerobic metabolism

b. oxidative capacity

c. metabolic rate

d. caloric expenditure

c. metabolic rate
Lactic acid may actually have beneficial effects on exercise performance, contrary to what most exercisers think.
a. true

b. false

a. true
A high lactate threshold indicates ___________________.
a. very good endurance capabilities

b. a high consumption of fat

c. a high rate of protein metabolism

d. greater muscular strength

a. very good endurance capabilities
Fatigue is different from muscle weakness or damage, because it is reversible with rest.
a. true

b. false

a. true
The point at which blood lactate begins to accumulate substantially above resting concentrations during exercise of increasing intensity is known as ____________.
a. EPOC

b. lactate threshold

c. aerobic capacity

d. basal metabolic rate

b. lactate threshold
What does NOT affect a person’s basal metabolic rate?
a. age

b. body temperature

c. calcium consumption

d. fat-free mass

c. calcium consumption
Most researchers now prefer to use the term resting metabolic rate (RMR) instead of basal metabolic rate (BMR), because RMR is an easier measurement to take than BMR.
a. true

b. false

a. true
When muscles appear to be nearly exhausted, playing music will not help increase the strength of muscle contraction.
a. true

b. false

b. false
Direct calorimetry is widely regarded as a useful tool for exercise measurements.
a. true

b. false

b. false
The role of the CNS in most types of fatigue is to limit exercise performance ____________.
a. based on metabolic exhaustion

b. as a protective mechanism

c. based on perceptions of fatigue

d. all of the above

b. as a protective mechanism
Most studies have reported that glycogen is spared when carbohydrate is ingested during prolonged, strenuous exercise.
a. true

b. false

b. false
What is NOT thought to be associated with DOMS?
a. Intracellular calcium level increases and activates enzymes that destroy the z-lines.

b. The by-products of cell breakdown and the inflammatory response stimulate free nerve endings.

c. High tension in the contractile-elastic component of muscle results in structural damage.

d. Loss of spinal-reflex control of alpha motor neurons during eccentric exercise over-stimulates muscle fibers, resulting in damage.

d. Loss of spinal-reflex control of alpha motor neurons during eccentric exercise over-stimulates muscle fibers, resulting in damage.
EAMC is an acronym for ____________.
a. exercise-associated muscle condition

b. exercise-associated muscle cramps

c. exercise-accentuated muscle condition

d. excessive-activity muscle cramps

b. exercise-associated muscle cramps
A treadmill test, in which subjects ran on a treadmill for 45 min on two separate days, clearly demonstrated that eccentric action is the primary initiator of DOMS. It was found that muscle soreness was associated with ____________.
a. level running

b. uphill running

c. downhill running

d. none of these; the test was actually done on a bicycle ergometer

c. downhill running
Which of these is NOT true of delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)?
a. In the short term, DOMS reduces the force-generating capacity of the affected muscles.

b. DOMS is likely necessary to maximize the training response.

c. Intense concentric exercise is the most likely cause of DOMS.

d. DOMS may actually result from structural damage in the muscle

c. Intense concentric exercise is the most likely cause of DOMS.
To prevent EAMCs, the athlete should do all of these EXCEPT ____________.
a. maintain electrolyte balance

b. stretch every four or five workouts

c. hydrate properly

d. reduce exercise intensity and duration

b. stretch every four or five workouts
A disadvantage of direct calorimetry is that
a. energy expenditure during prolonged exercise cannot be measured
b. the heat generated by exercise equipment must be taken into account
c. it cannot be used for measurements of resting energy expenditure
d. it is less accurate than indirect calorimetry
b. the heat generated by exercise equipment must
The body utilizes ___________ oxygen when metabolizing carbohydrate compared to
fat.
a. much more
b. somewhat more
c. the same amount of
d. less
d. less
As RER values approach 1.0,
a. the body is at rest
b. exertion levels are moderate
c. glucose/glycogen metabolism is maximal
d. glycogen is depleted and metabolism is mostly of fat
c. glucose/glycogen metabolism is maximal
Which of the following is not an important predictor of a successful endurance athlete?
a. high lactate threshold
b. high type II fiber percentage
c. high VO2max
d. high economy of effort
b. high type II fiber %
What is the term used to describe the phenomenon that occurs when oxygen supply does
not increase to meet the oxygen need at the onset of exercise?
a. oxygen deficit
b. oxygen debt
c. oxygen shortfall
d. oxygen insufficiency
a. oxygen deficit
During endurance exercise, fatigue correlates best with
a. low glycogen stores
b. low rates of glycogen depletion
c. high rates of glycogen depletion
d. high rates of gluconeogenesis
a. low glycogen stores
Glycogen depletion from muscle fiber types occurs in which order?
a. IIa, IIx, I
b. IIx, IIa, I
c. I, IIa, IIx
d. I, IIx, IIa
c. I, IIa, IIx
Found in skeletal muscles
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Both
c. both
Take longer than other muscle fibers to reach peak tension.
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Both
a. type I
Predominantly contains a slow form of myosin ATPase.
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Both
a. type I
Has more highly developed sarcolasmic reticulum, which helps deliver calcium to the muscle when stimulated.
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Both
b. type II
Has a motor neuron with a small cell body and can innervate a cluster of 10-180 muscle fibers.
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Both
a. type I
Predominantly contains a fast form of myosin ATPase.
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Both
b. type II
Reaches peak tension faster and collectively generates more force than other fiber types.
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Both
b. type II
Has three subtypes
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Both
b. type II
What term is used to describe the process by which tension of a given motor unit can vary from a twitch to tetanus by increasing the frequency of stimulation of a motor unit?
a. frequency adjustment

b. stimulation synchronization

c. rate-coding

d. summation

c. rate coding

frequency of stimulation (frequencies range from a twitch response based on a single electrical stimulus to the summation of a series of stimuli to tetanus, or peak force, resulting from continued stimulation at higher frequencies)

Which statement is true?
a. More force can be generated when more motor units are activated.

b. Type I motor units contain more muscle fibers than type II motor units.

c. Larger muscles tend to have fewer muscle fibers.

d. Type II motor units generate less force than type I motor units

a. More force can be generated when more motor units are activated.

the types of motor units activated (type II motor units generate more force than type I motor units, because a type II motor unit contains more muscle fibers than a type I motor unit)

A sarcomere generates the most force when _________________.
a. it is fully stretched, pro
ducing more pulling power

b. it has optimal overlap of the thick and thin filaments, producing good cross-bracing interaction

c. it is in its shortest, most powerful position

d. its thick and thin filaments are not touching

b. it has optimal overlap of the thick and thin filaments, producing good cross-bracing interaction

fiber and sarcomere length (optimal force is generated at the length where optimal overlap of the thick and thin filaments, maximizing cross-bridge interaction)

Maximal force development decreases progressively at higher speeds in _________ contractions.
a. eccentric

b. isometric

c. static

d. concentric

d. concentric

speed of contraction (concentric contractions need slow speed of contraction for maximum force development, eccentric contractions need fast speed of contraction for maximum force development)